I will mix up my response to your response a bit.
wrcmad said:
I disagree that "price" is simply the value of non-money in terms of money.
This is simply a definition (but one that is often forgotten). The price of apples is simply the money unit divided by the apple unit (i.e $2/kg or $0.40 each).
wrcmad said:
You got me thinking.

While I agree with some of the above, my thinking is a little different.
My context of 'productive labour' is not just that of sweat and toil, or pick and shovel. It is ultimately a measurement of "productive time/effort". You elude to this too. Thus, "service labour" is included in this context.
For any service labour to be offered, there is usually some sort of setup/infrastructure/capital investment/education behind it - also able to be quantified in "productive labour". So I am a little baffled of what would constitute a "non-labour good"? (except land grants. However, land is easily quantified in the secondary market for land/RE.)
Sorry, I wasn't saying that it doesn't approximate to a unit of productive labour but that is only part of what it is doing. For something that can be produced roughly at will (eg a haircut) then it would seem to represent the embodied value of the use of that person's labour (or a generic person if the good or service is sufficiently replicable across different people).
However, the price you pay does not necessarily reflect embodied productive labour rather than an expression of the utility value of money versus the non-money good/service. In a free trade, each party is believing they are getting the better end of the bargain. I willingly trade my produce which cost me X hours to make for your money while you trade your money for my produce that took me X hours. In a sufficiently informed and large enough market place my X hours will be priced relative to everyone else's X hours and some information will be given out about what is a "fair" price for my produce.
In terms of non-labour goods there are various non-labour productivity elements that go into their price. I may, say, buy a large acreage for $50,000 from a farmer simply because I like the view. Ten years later another person offers to pay me $1 million because they believe that it is ideal for growing truffles and, after a decade of careful investment of their time, skill and resources they'll be able to turn the land into a business making them $2 million per year. However, until they actually manage to produce and sell their truffles they are valuing it based on an
expected value. After a decade they may find that the price of truffles has tripled or halved compared to their initial expectations. The market price will be the market price. It will simply reflect the utility people get from holding money versus trading their money for your truffles. The price of the truffles reflects your willingness to trade your truffles for their money at the same time as their willingness to trade their money for your truffles. If either party withhold the supply of their half of the transaction they are simply refusing to accept a trade at the exchange prices being offered at this point in time (they may change their minds next week).
Hence, although an informed/deep enough market place may provide a relatively stable price that
approximates the value of your productive effort, it is still a static snapshot of your
past productive effort. Innovation and change will constantly be revaluing what is considered "productive" effort. Indeed, business to business transactions are fundamentally about trying to obtain greater productivity. A hammer's value differs dramatically based on whose hands it is in and consequently so too does the value of the person who makes hammers. This is why I think stating it this way is masking the importance of movements in exchange value. (But this concept is difficult for me to put into words for the first time so apologies for the rambling

)
wrcmad said:
While money does provide the services you mention, such as simplifying contracts etc., its ability to do so is a consequence of the common reference, or base-line unit measure of productive labour, rather than a good produced to provide these services.
I think this is mixing up cause and effect. Trade occurs because of comparative advantage (which itself can occur simply because of economies of scale rather than any absolute advantage). Money is a more efficient way of trading. It is providing a service. Production of goods is a measure of labour productivity but not all goods are of value nor are all goods traded. The money traded goods allows us to see where our efforts can be better placed in order to provide greater value (ie greater productive effort) to others (and simultaneously to ourselves) but it is not measuring all productive labour. Hmm. Complicated :/